Ask the Ref?

I'll explain this one last time.....

Once B1 fouls A1 the ball becomes dead. By rule nothing else that happens after that matters. That includes whistles and signals.

A1 cannot be charged with a foul against B2 because....
- the ball became dead once B1 fouled him
- the contact between A1 and B2 was caused by B1
- the contact was not intentional or flagrant

The "blarge" reference you make does not apply here because even if the fouls occurred at the same time, this is not a double foul, instead it is a simultaneous foul (Rule 4-19-8 vs 4-19-10).
The bolded part is what you didn't explicitly say until now. And again, I'm not saying my scenario constitutes a double foul. I'm making the comparison because in a "blarge" you have two officials signalling different things on the same incident, so by rule because the signals have been made, this must be a double foul. The rules don't support walking back one of the foul calls. The issue is with the signal being made.
 
The bolded part is what you didn't explicitly say until now.
Um.....

Yes I did...... (see the underlined, bolded part) 👇 (post # 1458)
I answered this in post #1452.

Once B1 contacts A1 everything else that happens in your description is moot. This includes whistles and signals associated with the action that occurs after the original contact (foul). You cannot charge A1 with a foul against B2.
And again, I'm not saying my scenario constitutes a double foul. I'm making the comparison because in a "blarge" you have two officials signalling different things on the same incident,
They are not the same incident...... B1 illegally contacted A1...... which then caused A1 to contact B2
so by rule because the signals have been made, this must be a double foul.
:ROFLMAO: I already provided the definition of a double foul. This is not a double foul
The rules don't support walking back one of the foul calls. The issue is with the signal being made.
Again..... and slowly for you.........The second foul never happened....... therefore the whistle and signal are irrelevant.

Think about this..... if the original push by B1 caused A1 to travel...... and you signal a travel...... would the travel stand?

Of course not.......



This matter is now closed. Any further comment will be deleted.
 
Refs passed the ball to free throw shooter, as he is shooting, the table blows the horn for a sub. Player makes the free throw. What is the call ?
 
Refs passed the ball to free throw shooter, as he is shooting, the table blows the horn for a sub. Player makes the free throw. What is the call ?
The horn does not cause the ball to become dead.

Score the point. Bring the sub in and resume play with either another free throw(s) or a throw-in for B anywhere along the end line.
 
By rule, we play on as the horn does not cause the ball to become dead in this situation.
What are YOU doing in that situation though? It's crazy to me that any distracting measures taken by the opposing team in the lane spaces (including verbal) are or can be considered a violation, but sounding the horn mid shot is not an avenue to reshoot the free throw! Then again, common sense doesn't always apply to rules...
 
What are YOU doing in that situation though? It's crazy to me that any distracting measures taken by the opposing team in the lane spaces (including verbal) are or can be considered a violation, but sounding the horn mid shot is not an avenue to reshoot the free throw! Then again, common sense doesn't always apply to rules...
It's not my rule, however based on the rule alone this horn does not cause the ball to become dead.

What I would do depends on the totality of the situation. In the past, I've ignored inadvertent horns and stopped play becuase of them.
 
A tricky situation I saw on YouTube. 0.3 sec left in tie game. Team spot throw in from own end line. Thrower rolls the ball it is picked up and miracle shot is made as horn goes. Officials correctly wave it off but the student section storms the court and return to their seats after the officials wave them back.

Here’s what happened next. Officials issue technical and start OT with two FTs. Shooter makes them and then they do a jump ball and play begins. My questions are the following.

Do the officials have to issue a technical since the game had ended in regulation and there would’ve been an intermission before the start of OT anyway? Is it a judgement call or mandatory?

Once they did issue technicals and start OT then there should be a throw in opposing the table and no jump ball, correct?

Lastly, after the throw in does the arrow switch when it is at the throwers disposal, when it is legally touched, or not at all since the the throw in is for technicals?

The officials did a decent job but I think they made some mistakes.
 
A tricky situation I saw on YouTube. 0.3 sec left in tie game. Team spot throw in from own end line. Thrower rolls the ball it is picked up and miracle shot is made as horn goes. Officials correctly wave it off but the student section storms the court and return to their seats after the officials wave them back.
We touched on fan behavior in an earlier thread this month but this situation is much different. Therefore, let's dive a little deeper into this rule because there are times where a technical foul is appropriate and times it is not...... The rule is stated below..... I have bolded two sentences in red that are very important to the situation you present.

Rule 2-8-1 - Officials' Additional Duties
"The officials shall:

Penalize unsporting conduct by any player, coach, substitute,team attendant or follower.


NOTE: The home management or game committee is responsible forspectator behavior, insofar as it can reasonably be expected to control thespectators. The officials may rule fouls on either team if its supporters act in such a way as to interfere with the proper conduct of the game. Discretion must be used in ruling such fouls, however, lest a team beunjustly penalized. When team supporters become unruly or interfere withthe orderly progress of the game, the officials shall stop the game until the host management resolves the situation and the game can proceed in anorderly manner. In the absence of a designated school representative, the home coach shall serve as the host management".

In your situation, fans erroneously (and understandibly) rushed the floor because they thought the game had ended when the ball went throught the basket when in fact, the period ended when the player picked up the ball. Therefore, no delay of the 4th period ended. Reasonable time should be given to clear allow the PA announcer to begin the process of clearing the floor to begin the overtime period.

Now, I will admit that some leagues/state associations may be instructing their officials to take a zero tolerance apporach to something like this and assess a technical foul. In contrast there are leagues/state associations that may say "we aren't penalizing that"..... In other words.... "when in Rome, do as the Romans do". ;)


Here’s what happened next. Officials issue technical and start OT with two FTs.
Because this is a tie game, the officials were correct in doing this.
Shooter makes them and then they do a jump ball and play begins.
Incorrect. FT's for technical fouls are always followed by a throw-in at the division line opposite the scorer's table by the offended (shooting) team.
My questions are the following.

Do the officials have to issue a technical since the game had ended in regulation and there would’ve been an intermission before the start of OT anyway? Is it a judgement call or mandatory?
See above.....
Once they did issue technicals and start OT then there should be a throw in opposing the table and no jump ball, correct?
Correct
Lastly, after the throw in does the arrow switch when it is at the throwers disposal, when it is legally touched, or not at all since the the throw in is for technicals?
The arrow does not change since the throw-in is a part of the technical foul penalty. It is not an alternating possession throw-in.
The officials did a decent job but I think they made some mistakes.
Not sure what their marching orders were with regards to assessing the technical, but they did err in starting the OT period with a jump ball.

Good situation..... and great questions
 
Last edited:
Because this is a tie game, the officials were correct in doing this. Had the team with the ball been trailing by 1 or 2 points, then the FT's would have been a part of the 4th period and that team potentially could have been shooting to win the game.
I don’t understand this part. The way I read it, the team with the ball was the team whose fans stormed the court, thus drawing the technical. Further, why is the ruling different depending on the score if the court-storming happened after the buzzer? If I’m reading either the OP or your response incorrectly, I apologize.
 
@serpico -----Yeah, I caught myself on this and thought I edited the post properly...... but didn't hit the "save" button.....

Just another kicked call on my part ;)

I had meant to cite an example of the team leading being assessed with a technical foul and the two FT's could haveled to a tie game and overtime or a win. I'll fix it shortly by leaving that possibility out of the mix because it's much different than the original play.

Good catch.
 
We touched on fan behavior in an earlier thread this month but this situation is much different. Therefore, let's dive a little deeper into this rule because there are times where a technical foul is appropriate and times it is not...... The rule is stated below..... I have bolded two sentences in red that are very important to the situation you present.

Rule 2-8-1 - Officials' Additional Duties
"The officials shall:

Penalize unsporting conduct by any player, coach, substitute,team attendant or follower.


NOTE: The home management or game committee is responsible forspectator behavior, insofar as it can reasonably be expected to control thespectators. The officials may rule fouls on either team if its supporters act in such a way as to interfere with the proper conduct of the game. Discretion must be used in ruling such fouls, however, lest a team beunjustly penalized. When team supporters become unruly or interfere withthe orderly progress of the game, the officials shall stop the game until the host management resolves the situation and the game can proceed in anorderly manner. In the absence of a designated school representative, the home coach shall serve as the host management".

In your situation, fans erroneously (and understandibly) rushed the floor because they thought the game had ended when the ball went throught the basket when in fact, the period ended when the player picked up the ball. Therefore, no delay of the 4th period ended. Reasonable time should be given to clear allow the PA announcer to begin the process of clearing the floor to begin the overtime period.

Now, I will admit that some leagues/state associations may be instructing their officials to take a zero tolerance apporach to something like this and assess a technical foul. In contrast there are leagues/state associations that may say "we aren't penalizing that"..... In other words.... "when in Rome, do as the Romans do". ;)



Because this is a tie game, the officials were correct in doing this.

Incorrect. FT's for technical fouls are always followed by a throw-in at the division line opposite the scorer's table by the offended (shooting) team.

See above.....

Correct

The arrow does not change since the throw-in is a part of the technical foul penalty. It is not an alternating possession throw-in.

Not sure what their marching orders were with regards to assessing the technical, but they did err in starting the OT period with a jump ball.

Good situation..... and great questions
Does this mean that if Team A is the one to shoot technical FTs and subsequently has the throw-in, that it again has the next possession arrow if there's a held ball?
 
Does this mean that if Team A is the one to shoot technical FTs and subsequently has the throw-in, that it again has the next possession arrow if there's a held ball?
The throw-in after a technical foul is not an alternating possession throw in, it is part of the penalty associated with the technical foul.

The arrow does not change in this situation.
 
The throw-in after a technical foul is not an alternating possession throw in, it is part of the penalty associated with the technical foul.

The arrow does not change in this situation.
So B gets the next possession on the arrow, similar to a throw-in to start the 3rd quarter?
 
I thought the arrow was neutral to start an overtime. When you had the technical foul, that would establish the arrow (if the technical is against team B), Team A shoots the free throws, gets alternating possession but Team B would have the next arrow (provided no problems on throw-in).
 
I thought the arrow was neutral to start an overtime. When you had the technical foul, that would establish the arrow (if the technical is against team B), Team A shoots the free throws, gets alternating possession but Team B would have the next arrow (provided no problems on throw-in).
Correct....... for overtime. (or at the start of the game)

What I was trying to explain is that the throw-in is not an alternating possession throw-in. Say a technical foul occurred after the end of the 1st, 2nd, or 3rd period...... the ball would be put back into play after shooting FT's with a throw-in at the division line opposite the scorer's table. If A "had the arrow", they would still have the arrow after the throw in.
 
How many players are required for a game to continue? That is can a game continue with only say two players or one player, or what happens if the whole entire team becomes injured, fouls out or otherwise becomes disqualified?
I once played in a game where only myself and only one player on my team was left on the floor while in high school (but for a church league so it may have had differing rules).
Also is it legal to inbound the ball off the face/head of an opposing player, or otherwise cause the ball to last be touched by the opposition by making it go off his face or head?
 
How many players are required for a game to continue? That is can a game continue with only say two players or one player, or what happens if the whole entire team becomes injured, fouls out or otherwise becomes disqualified?
Under NFHS rules, if a team is reduced to one player, the game becomes a forfeit unless the referee believes that team has an opportunity to win the game. (Rule 3-1-1)

A game cannot start with either team having less than 5 players on the floor.
Also is it legal to inbound the ball off the face/head of an opposing player, or otherwise cause the ball to last be touched by the opposition by making it go off his face or head?
Lots to consider here. The official must judge....

- whether or not the act of throwing the ball off the opponent's face was intentional/premeditated
- whether or not the act was unsporting in nature
- whether or not the opponent made any movement(s) that contributed to the ball hitting him/her in the face

In this situation, we could have either a flagrant technical foul, a technical foul, or merely a ball out of bounds off of the opponent.

This situation is a play right out of our Case Book (10.4.6 Situation B)
 
A game cannot start with either team having less than 5 players on the floor.
So if a team has 5 players and one is injured or ill and cannot play, it is declared a forfeit in favor of the other team?
Was it ever/formerly permissible to start a game with 4? I seem to recall hearing about perhaps in the 40s or 50s of a game starting with only 4 players with a small farm school.
 
So if a team has 5 players and one is injured or ill and cannot play, it is declared a forfeit in favor of the other team?
Under OHSAA regulations, this is a no contest.
Was it ever/formerly permissible to start a game with 4? I seem to recall hearing about perhaps in the 40s or 50s of a game starting with only 4 players with a small farm school.
I'll have to do some digging on this one.
 
I've seen this many, many times at all level of basketball. Play A establishes a pivot foot in the lane. After pivoting the player lifts his non-pivot foot and takes a step to the basket for a layup, lifting his pivot foot in the process. Why is this not traveling? Is there just a rule that it isn't?
 
I've seen this many, many times at all level of basketball. Play A establishes a pivot foot in the lane. After pivoting the player lifts his non-pivot foot and takes a step to the basket for a layup, lifting his pivot foot in the process. Why is this not traveling? Is there just a rule that it isn't?
Rule 4-44 Traveling

Art 3
- After coming to a stop and establishing a pivot foot....
a) the pivot foot may be lifted, but not returned to the floor, before the ball is released on a pass or try for goal
 
Rule 4-44 Traveling

Art 3
- After coming to a stop and establishing a pivot foot....
a) the pivot foot may be lifted, but not returned to the floor, before the ball is released on a pass or try for goal
Not to get too far off topic, but this basically describes the same principle as to why a layup isn’t traveling, right?
 
This happened in a March madness game and caused a lot of confusion by the announcers. I think their rules official came back and said the call on the court was correct, but did not give much explanation.

Team A is inbounding the ball under their own basket. Throws the inbound out toward half court. Pass is too high and Player on team A tips the ball but can’t catch it. The ball goes into the backcourt. Team A goes and gets the ball in the backcourt. Should this be a backcourt violation? Or not because possession was never established in the front court?
 
Team A is inbounding the ball under their own basket. Throws the inbound out toward half court. Pass is too high and Player on team A tips the ball but can’t catch it. The ball goes into the backcourt. Team A goes and gets the ball in the backcourt. Should this be a backcourt violation? Or not because possession was never established in the front court?
This is not a backcourt violation, no different than if a long rebound from an unsuccessful try by A ends up in the back court without possession being established.

Player and team control are established once A catches the ball in the front court. Since that did not happen, there is no violation.
 
There was a play in the OSU/Maine WBB game that drew some comments about the lack of Backcourt violation. Maine is inbounding after a made OSU basket. OSU is pressing. Inbounding player throws ball towards halfcourt. Player from frontcourt is coming back to get the ball. She catches the ball with both her feet just inside the frontcourt but the ball still in the backcourt and her momentum carries her to the backcourt. Should this have been called a violation?
 
Both feet and the ball must have frontcourt status for this to have been a violation. Another way to say it is all three have to cross the division line in order to potentially have a backcourt violation.
 
Top